Coito ergo sum wrote:Seth wrote:
To the OP, the problem there is that the courts won't buy it. It's far easier to ban abortion than it is to give men a pass. This is because the courts already acknowledge the inequity of making men pay for children they father, but the courts, and society in general, subscribe to the "do it for the children" argument that says it doesn't matter what's fair or equitable, or even rational, the only thing that matters is what's in the "best interests of the children."
I don't agree with this. Courts don't acknowledge the inequity of making men pay for the children they father. Quite to the contrary, they find that children have an absolute right to child support from their parents, except in the case of donors to a sperm bank and such.
A distinction without a difference. If men had the right to control whether or not the child is brought to term, it wouldn't be an issue. They don't. And you're simply confirming what I said in different words.
Seth wrote:
In that regard, the legal tomes are replete with cases of husbands who have discovered that the children they have been raising aren't theirs, but rather are the product of an adulterous affair, and yet the courts will still mandate that the man support the children, even though they aren't his, and what's more, they WILL give a pass to the true father.
Those cases do occur, and they are travesties of justice, but that's a different issue entirely.
Not really. It's all part of the privilege that women enjoy when it comes to cavalier and imprudent operation of their vaginas.
I don't think that most people, women included, think that men should have to support other men's children.
If they don't, then why aren't there laws to that effect?
In my view, the man put in that situation by a woman should have a lawsuit against the woman for fraud and intentional infliction of emotional distress, etc. She should have to pay him back for the amount of money he had to pay to support some other guy's child. That, of course, doesn't happen, and the courts have thus far protected women who commit this kind of fraud.
I agree. But the courts are a reflection of the moral beliefs of the society. And from the pragmatic standpoint, a woman who is requesting child support isn't likely to be able to pay a judgment.
Seth wrote:
This is why the "give the father a pass" won't work. When a child is born, the courts WILL hold the man accountable. This being the case, absent a substantial shift in precedent or explicit laws overruling the existing precedents, the only way to be to the man is to give him a say in whether the child is born or not. This means that if she wants the kid, and he doesn't, the child should be aborted (if abortion is allowed at all). For a conceived child to be permitted to gestate, it should require the consent of BOTH parents.
Oh - I didn't think you were advocating that. I find that an impossible rule to create. If I were a woman, my medical procedures would be none of anybody's business. I mean, a husband doesn't need his wife's permission to get a vasectomy, so I don't see why the wife would need hubby's permission to dust and clean the uterus.
Because killing a living human being is not "dusting and cleaning."
Moreover, Hadespussercats' points have to be given their due, don't they? The woman by bearing the child is inherently bearing risk the father does not bear.
Sucks to be a woman. That's no reason to impose a burden on men. Life isn't fair.
Seth wrote:
Of course there's no way this is acceptable to women, because it requires they submit to an abortion against their will.
And, any law that would require women to submit to an abortion against their will is an abomination to individual liberty.
Correct. But remember there's a nuance in the contract theory, which is that under the contract theory, the woman is WAIVING her right to absolute reproductive autonomy, and is therefore CONSENTING to some degree of control as a part of the contract. Thus, in that scenario, compelling a woman to have an abortion would simply be enforcing a contract she agreed to be bound by.
Seth wrote:
It's a real conundrum. Nowhere else in the law that I can think of is "ownership" of something determined by the whims and caprices of one party. When the child is a fetus, it's "the woman's body" and a "lump of cells," unless the woman WANTS the fetus, in which case it's a ticking time bomb for the father.
Well, the embryo is, in fact, part of the woman's body, and remains so. It's connected to her nervous system and her cardio vascular system. That's how humans develop - the fertilized egg starts dividing in the uterus and then attaches to to the uterus wall and becomes part of the woman's body.
Nope. it's a separate, distinct living human being from the instant that the parental chromosomes align along the spindle apparatus. It has it's own unique DNA that is distinct and different from either the mother or father, and it's essential nature as a unique human being never changes from zygote to fetus to infant to adult to death. It's never anything other than a separate, distinct human being that is being gestated and is developing inside the mother. It "attaches to" the uterine wall, it's not "part of" the uterine wall. It develops a placenta and has its own blood supply. It's the definition of a "parasitic organism." But it's NOT "part of" the mother.
And, the issue is not one of property ownership. It's one of liberty and privacy, and then one of obligation to support and a child's rights vis-a-vis parents. We're not talking about property ownership.
It's a metaphor of sorts.
Seth wrote:
Therefore, the only equitable solution that I can see is the "contract for sex" theory I put forward. In it, women accept certain contractual obligations by having sex and becoming pregnant. By mutual consent, the child can be terminated according to law, but if either party objects, she's required to carry the child to term. And if she does not wish to keep the child, while she is obligated to carry it to term, at delivery, the child is removed and given to the other party, who becomes completely responsible for the child. The same legal burden accrues to the woman if she decides to keep the child over the father's objection.
I think if you did this, the woman would be entitled to charge the father of the child rent for the compelled use of her uterus.
Yes, there is a valid argument to be made in that respect.
Nine months of illness, nausea, pain, aches, vomiting, mood swings, and other such effects of pregnancy, plus doctors appointments, bearing the health and medical risks of carrying the child, etc. Plus time off work, loss of income during the time where the father is compelling the pregnancy. To make it completely fair, wouldn't there have to be compensation to the woman in the instances where she says "I want an abortion" and he says that he wants her to have the child?
Yes, I believe that would be fair and equitable.
Then, one the child is born, what if when the child is 5 or 6 he or she wants to know who mommy is? Is the child now legally prohibited from contacting mom? Or, can mom get involved in the child's life, while still disclaiming financial obligations? What ought we say to the crying child who feels abandoned by mom, who lives maybe one town over but who will never even say hello....?
That's a commonplace problem that society deals with every day as the result of divorce or death of a parent. No real changes in the law needed except that the unwilling parent should be required to sign a document relinquishing all parental rights.
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