"objective standard" and "objective morality" are different, how?born-again-atheist wrote:That's a goddamn rift in the space time contiuum right there. If we don't have an objective standard by which to measure an individual's readiness how can we assess any case "on an individual basis"?Precisely. There is none. Each case must be evaluated individually.
I'm saying that local rules apply, and that trying to determine/assert a universal rule is equivalent with trying to assert an objective basis for morality. Trying to assert a morality that fits all people across all ages and cultures is Kant's attempt to impose christian morality on the whole universe, and, please excuse me for saying this, your position seems to be a repetition of the same approach (minus the xtianity thing, of course). Morality is subjective, but it's in that weird realm of collective subjectivity, by which I only mean to say that humans make it up as they go along, based on their local influences.On which frame work or standard do we set it against then? Nobody has yet to come up with one which can be applied to all individuals across all ages and cultures. All you're suggesting is an arbitrarily subjective decision by an individual instead of an arbitrary decision codified in law.
Not necessary. It'd only be necessary when a complaint was filed, which would represent the real values of the real people in any locality. No huge burden there, methinks.
Hardly, but how many false complaints about other legal issues do we handle routinely? An objective arbiter (judge) weighs the evidence and makes a decision based on said evidence. Nothing earth-shattering here, is there?No huge burden? You really think so? So you mean there never would be any false complaints, that there would never be a relationship where a "complaint" should be made but none is?
Look, we both agree that abuse of the innocent deserves harsh punishment. We're only bickering over minor legalistic details. We clearly agree a helluva lot more than we disagree.