The guy in the OP did. It was a pretty symmetry. So not only does that make it fair, but it makes it cool too!Brian Peacock wrote:Do the rich pay their fair share?
Define fair.

The guy in the OP did. It was a pretty symmetry. So not only does that make it fair, but it makes it cool too!Brian Peacock wrote:Do the rich pay their fair share?
Define fair.
The question was about fairness of taxation, not morality or ethics.laklak wrote:Why should there be a difference? If I acquire money through rents, stock dividends, or inheritance is that somehow less moral or ethical than earning money by digging ditches?
If the employer pays the employee an agreed-upon wage for that labor, how is the worker being "exploited?"Rum wrote:Marx called it exploitation of labour. Your stocks, rents etc. were acquired one way and another through the labour of others (in classical Marxist theory). The rich own the means of production and exploit the labour of others in the process of acquiring more wealth. They seem to be doing pretty well at it right now.
Depends on how you define "earning." Marx's definition doesn't include investment risk (rent seeking) as "labor" and therefore any such income is "unearned" therefore illegitimate and therefore exploitative of the workers in the factory. And that's the single, slender, fallacious reed upon which his entire philosophy, and the philosophy of every Marxist who has come after him, rests.mistermack wrote:Going by that summary, the standard for being a professor at UCLA is incredibly low.
He claims to be qualified in economics, but he throws around words like ''earn'' without any definition at all. He makes no distinction between receiving income, and earning income.
Talking about fair shares, without exploring how the money was acquired, is moronic.
I've never done an hour's study of economics, but even I can see that there's a difference between earning, and acquiring.
Why is it "perfectly fair?" As long as each pays for the benefits and amenities of society that each uses, why does the rich person have to pay more than someone else for each "quantum" of public benefits?mistermack wrote:The question was about fairness of taxation, not morality or ethics.laklak wrote:Why should there be a difference? If I acquire money through rents, stock dividends, or inheritance is that somehow less moral or ethical than earning money by digging ditches?
I think it's perfectly fair for someone who earns billions through investments to pay higher rates than someone who shovels shit.
Who the fuck do you think build the factories, ships, trucks and other means of making and getting products to market?Also, your post ignores the fact that capital makes makes capital, and without effective taxation of the super rich, you end up with a tiny few owning everything, and nobody else even having a chance.
Why? Because you're jealous of those who inherit wealth from their families? Do you work hard every day so that your children can have the same shitty start in life that you did, or do you hope to pass something on to them that will give them a leg up in life and make it easier for them to succeed even more?I favour one hundred percent tax on inheritances over a reasonable figure. If everyone had the same start in life, it might be easier to sustain your argument.
When there is a surplus of labour (which is most often the case), and if the wage paid is a pittance compared to the value the employer gets from selling the goods, and if the wage earner is barely able to support a family in a state of poverty, then I call it exploitation.Seth wrote:If the employer pays the employee an agreed-upon wage for that labor, how is the worker being "exploited?"Rum wrote:Marx called it exploitation of labour. Your stocks, rents etc. were acquired one way and another through the labour of others (in classical Marxist theory). The rich own the means of production and exploit the labour of others in the process of acquiring more wealth. They seem to be doing pretty well at it right now.
Then the worker needs to improve his or her skill set to make them worth more to the employer, or find another employer.JimC wrote:When there is a surplus of labour (which is most often the case), and if the wage paid is a pittance compared to the value the employer gets from selling the goods, and if the wage earner is barely able to support a family in a state of poverty, then I call it exploitation.Seth wrote:If the employer pays the employee an agreed-upon wage for that labor, how is the worker being "exploited?"Rum wrote:Marx called it exploitation of labour. Your stocks, rents etc. were acquired one way and another through the labour of others (in classical Marxist theory). The rich own the means of production and exploit the labour of others in the process of acquiring more wealth. They seem to be doing pretty well at it right now.
Unions are fine so long as membership is entirely voluntary and the government does not favor labor unions over employers at the bargaining table or in the law.Unions are the working man's only defence against rapacious employer scum.
By that dubious metric shoveling shit is "gambling" because one may not have any shit to shovel, or someone else could offer to shovel it cheaper than you do.mistermack wrote:It doesn't have to be earned or unearned. It's not a black or white world.
Investment is gambling. There's no reason why it shouldn't attract heavy taxation, compared to shovelling shit.
I see no reason why state-operated lotteries should be taxed at all.If a poor person buys a lottery ticket, for a pound, a huge chunk gets taken out.
I see no reason why the same shouldn't apply to much bigger bets.
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