rEvolutionist wrote:Seth wrote:rEvolutionist wrote:Seth wrote:
You still haven't justified why Person A should be compelled to labor on behalf of Person B. Person A has a responsibility to labor on behalf of himself and perhaps those he has taken financial and social responsibility for in order to pay his fair share of the costs of providing a healthy, stable and lawful society. But again, what is your rational justification for causing Person A to pay more than Person B for the direct benefit of Person B. And why is Person B not required to labor on his own behalf to pay for his fair share of the costs of providing him with a healthy, stable and lawful society?
Well, person B generally IS required to labour on his his own behalf if he is physically able to. I don't know of anywhere where you can get unlimited dole money without searching for work and taking work skills programs, and indeed being forceably enrolled in a work for the dole programme like is happening in neoliberal economies everywhere now. There will always be a small percentage of people who can't work, either through physical disability or effective mental disability from an abusive upbringing, and the odd lazy person. There's no need to punish other honest people who are going through hard times. As we keep mentioning to you, that is the cost of living in a stable and civilised society. It's an understanding that not everyone can be happily employed and mentally and physically healthy at all times throughout their lives.
Evasion, obfuscation and pettifoggery! Answer the question...for once.
I DID answer the question.
"And why is Person B not required to labor on his own behalf to pay for his fair share of the costs of providing him with a healthy, stable and lawful society?" It's not my fault you failed to put a question mark on the sentence before.
No you didn't, you never have.
What is your rational moral justification for forcing Person A to labor against his will on behalf of Person B.
I've answered this a million times before. The social contract. A man isn't an island. He's part of a society. Society need upkeep for health and stability. THAT's the moral justification. Just because you don't like my morals, doesn't mean I am not presenting a moral justification.
And Person A provides a portion of his labor for the upkeep of society by way of taxes to pay for services and amenities he enjoys. But again, what is your moral argument (other than an evasive generality) for forcing Person A to labor on behalf of Person B?
You seem to believe that Person A, simply because he's better at laboring and is compensated at a higher rate, somehow owes MORE than his fair share of the costs of government.
No. As explained, we happen to disagree what "fair share" means. Your assessment is just as arbitrary as my assessment. Although, evidence clearly shows that as wealth inequality grows, so does social dysfunction.
So, how do you determine what a "fair share" is in your preferred system?
Well, I'd go by metrics of social health. Happiness, health, level of crime, poverty level, imprisonment level etc etc. If reductions in taxation and social service provision lead to a worsening of those metrics, then I'd say a fair share isn't being paid. If those metrics were high and stable then I'd say a fair share IS being paid.
Why is Person A more responsible for laboring to achieve those standards than Person B is? Why must Person A give of his own labor and property TO PERSON B merely because you think it's "socially healthy" for him to do so? Doesn't Person B have a moral obligation to provide for his own upkeep and use of public resources?
The other point of disagreement is that Person A necessarily is "better at laboring" just because he is richer. They might be in some cases, but that isn't a given.
Pettifoggery. If he's making more money than Person B, his value to the marketplace for labor is higher. Why should Person A have to sacrifice his labor to Person B merely because his labor is more valuable in the marketplace than Person B's? That's like saying that because Apple makes more money selling computers than IBM does, Apple must be required to fork over part of its profits to IBM.
On what moral theory or basis would Person A owe Person B the fruits of his labor?
Well, usually labour is paid out fairly equitably I guess. Although, when you look at CEO's and their ridiculous pay, that clearly seems inequitable to me.
...because someone doesn't want to pay ME that much...
Evidently, the CEO's you refer to are worth what they get paid, otherwise the shareholders would insist that they be paid less. What business is it of yours, or anyone else's including government's, what a group of shareholders agree to pay to their CEO?
And it's no surprise that this happens, as I don't think the free-market is a rational judge of anything. The free-market is based on flawed premises, and as such the results it produces are suboptimal.
"Suboptimal" for whom? The dependent class? Who gets to decide what is "suboptimal" and why should they get to do so?
Additional problems start happening when you get into investment of capital. That's not labour. It might be valuable "work" of sorts. But you should be clearer if that's what you mean.
Only a Marxist cares if investment of capital is "labour." The only thing that's important is that investment of capital is WEALTH GENERATION for anyone involved. Without that capital investment, commerce grinds to a halt, as it has in this recession precisely because capital investors have been backing out of the markets and sitting on their capital waiting for tax and regulation policy to stabilize.
What is your rational argument that supports this claim? Why is the better, more efficient, more effective laborer who creates more wealth per unit of work obliged to pay a larger share of the costs of government than Person B, who is less industrious and less valuable as a worker?
I don't accept your premises.
As usual you're evading the issue, as you always do because you CANNOT provide a rational moral analysis of why Person A must be compelled to labor on behalf of Person B.
I reject your premises because, as CES pointed out, capitalism ISN'T a meritocracy. Only loons like you on the fringe think it is.
Evasion and pettifoggery.
And that's why Marxists like you always evade the essential moral argument of Marxist collectivism.
I'm a capitalist, Seth. How the fuck can I be a Marxist?
You walk like a Marxist, you quack like a Marxist. You're a Marxist.
You assume a priori that "fairness" (however Marxism defines that rather loose and mutable term on any given day as applied to any given person) automatically answers all questions about enslaving one person to the service of another. It doesn't. You have NEVER, EVER been able to construct any sort of rational moral argument for the basic premise of "from each according to his ability, to each according to his need." Ever.
That's because I am not a Marxist.
...I just play one on the Interwebz...
I doubt you ever will because you know full well there IS NO moral argument to be made in support of Marxist collectivist slavery of the "upper classes," much less the common Marxist practice of simply exterminating the "upper classes" (read: "anyone who has more than me") and expropriating what was once theirs. Stalin and Mao did rather a lot of that, and you're in the same class as they are because you have no moral foundation for your philosophy other than avarice, greed, jealousy and envy of those who are better off than you are.
I AM Stalin!
If you were, you'd be dead, which might be a good thing.
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"All that is required for the triumph of evil is that good men do nothing." Edmund Burke
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