I don't think you understand. I have not just 'come back with' objective means the same as absolute. Right from the start of this thread (or I should say, even before the start of this thread) I have been thinking of 'objective morality' as meaning the same thing as 'absolute morality'. In a philosophical discussion (as I understand it) that is how the question of objective vs subjective morality is generally discussed. I'm honestly not just throwing it in there at the last minute to score points against you or to piss you off or to 'win' an argument.gooseboy wrote:You say morals are purely subjective. I say no, there's a way to judge them objectively. So then you come back with objective means the same as absolute and morals aren't absolute so therefore... what exactly?littlebitofnonsense wrote:gooseboy wrote: To try to say that "objective morality" means the same as "absolute morality" seems pretty ridiculous to me.
I've just quoted the aspects of the definition that I think are most relevant to my assertion that 'objective morality' in a philosophical sense is the same as 'absolute morality'.


gooseboy wrote:Where did I say that an evolutionary viewpoint is the best way to judge moral values? The answer is that I didn't, and your argument is pure strawman. All I have said, which I will repeat again, is that there is a way to objectively judge morals, thus they are not purely subjective.littlebitofnonsense wrote:The 'object' of perception or thought is absolutely pure in its independence from subjective perceptions. Thus, objective morality needs to exist independently from our subjective perceptions. In your case you are subjectively deciding that 'an evolutionary viewpoint in the environment that it's in' is the best 'objective' way to compare moral values.
I'm sorry I misunderstood you as I did think you were advocating the evolutionary criterion as being the best way but I now accept that is not your argument. However, whether or not an evolutionary viewpoint is the best way to judge moral values is actually completely irrelevant to my argument and as such my argument is not pure strawman.

I'll restate:
The 'object' of perception or thought is absolutely pure in its independence from subjective perceptions. Thus, objective morality needs to exist independently from our subjective perceptions. It does not matter whether or not the chosen 'way' is the 'best way', if somebody subjectively chooses 'a way to objectively judge morals' then the ultimate judgement is still subjective in an absolute sense.
Do you understand what I'm trying to say? Perhaps I'm not being clear enough?
