Seth wrote:Xamonas Chegwé wrote:As I see it, any use of violence can be justified by it preventing similar or greater violence to oneself or to another. If an adult is hitting your child with a baseball bat, you are quite justified in using pretty much any means necessary to stop him doing it. Once he has been stopped though, and is unable or unwilling to continue, any further violence on your part becomes excessive and ceases to be morally justifiable. If, on the other hand, they merely slap your kid for being cheeky, then attacking them with a crowbar would be going a tad too far - especially if the perpetrator was a 90 year-old woman.
The grey areas come where the violence being prevented is not physical - ie. no like-for-like comparison can be made to decide if the force used is excessive. For example: How much violence is reasonable to offset the pain caused by losing your property? Is it justifiable to use more violence if that property is not insured? Is it ok to break a limb of someone trying to steal your car but only to bruise someone trying to steal your roller skates? Or is property property? Can any means be used to prevent any theft? The answers are a lot less obvious.
Less obvious still, are cases where the hurt being prevented is purely psychological. How much violence can be justified if someone calls your pint a poofter? Or defiles the temple of the Great White Elk (Blessed be her Antlers.) Or fails to correctly use an apostrophe!
Sure, almost everyone that uses violence thinks they are justified at the time - except for psychopaths - they know it's not justified but hey-ho!

What I don't agree with is that there is any
absolute morality or absolutely justifiable course of action in any circumstance. We either buy in to society and take a consensus view on what goes and what doesn't, or we plough our own furrow and risk censure if we overstep the line (or regular beatings if we understep it!) Most of us fall somewhere between the two, in my experience.
To me the limit is clearly a threat of physical violence. Under no circumstances do I consider verbal (or written) provocation to be justification for the use of any force whatsoever. When it comes to insults and name-calling, it's the duty of every person to simply ignore such provocations and/or walk away. Anger generated by an insult that results in violence is not a justification for a use of force because adults are expected to control their anger and not initiate physical violence because of something said to them or written about them.
Insult is never justification for violence, only physical attack provides moral justification for retaliation in self-defense or the defense of others.
I'm pretty much in agreement there. However, the laws of most countries take a different view (assuming that one considers the forceful restriction of liberty to be a form of violence - and, even if one does not, then the "reasonable force" used by its officers to enact an arrest certainly is.) So, is it correct that society as a whole, in its guise of "The Law", is entitled to react violently to such things as libel, hate-speech, blasphemy, inciting violence, etc., while an individual member of that society is required to turn the other cheek?
I don't really take a side on this question - rather, I think that each case should be taken on its own merits. I just found the disconnect between an individual's right to retaliate, immediately, in the heat of the moment and society's to retaliate, after the fact, in cold blood, interesting.
