I just want to elucidate, in case there's any confusion...
If the summing of series x is doubtful, then we simply cannot say that x = x. That is, x = x
only applies to series of numbers with actual sums. Hence, the utilisation of x = x as the basis of proving x's sum, is an unwarranted move that nullifies any of the subsequent math.
I've also spotted something significant that XC said just prior to presenting the second mathematical proof:
Xamonas Chegwé wrote:1. The result of adding together the infinite parts as described by Zeno, be it an actual number or not, is identical to itself.
If no actual number is obtained from adding an infinite series together, then we have our answer - an infinite series cannot be summed!
How can the sum of x = 1, when previously it was already decided that x has no sum?! The conclusion is at-odds with its premise!!
So, if XC states that x = x, subsequent to proving that x = 1, then he has done so either by:
1) Assuming that x has a sum and utilising that assumption prior to proving what that sum is.
2) Providing a sum that is at-odds with his premise (that the series has no sum).
Either way, the math has to be null & void.