Do they have law schools where you live? Or, are you just swallowing what "alternet" sells you whole? I love how you mock "fox news" as being biased, but then go right for "alternet" as one of your main sources. Joke and a half, that.rEvolutionist wrote:The blockade was illegal.Coito ergo sum wrote:They boarded a boat after announcing a blockade, which the boat proceeded to run.rEvolutionist wrote:Umm, they stormed a civilian boat in international waters.Coito ergo sum wrote:How am I supposed to know he's talking about Israel? He makes shit up all the time.rEvolutionist wrote:
Does 'Gaza Aid Flotilla' ring any bells?
The "Gaza aid flotilla" incident wasn't piracy. To call it that is to pretend that words don't have meanings.
Israel doesn't occupy Gaza. It's not an occupied territory. They pulled out 5 years ago, and dismantled all settlements there. Or, hadn't you heard?rEvolutionist wrote:http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/10306193Israel's blockade of Gaza is a clear violation of international humanitarian law, the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) has said.
A blockade is only legal in times of war. Israel was/is not at war with Gaza, for a number of obvious reasons which you alone apparently don't know: 1. Gaza isn't an independent country/state. It is occupied territory.; and 2. Israel and Gaza were under a signed cease-fire at the time.![]()
A blockade is not "only legal in times of war." Example - Cuban missile crisis. Many nations have enacted blockades in similar situations. It is not international law that blockades are "only legal in times of war." You're dead wrong.
This isn't "collective punishment."rEvolutionist wrote:
Geneva Convention on collective punishment and punitive action.What law?rEvolutionist wrote:
But it was illegal,
First - there is no "Geneva Convention on Collective Punishment and Punitive Action." What you're referring to is Article 33 of Geneva Convention relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War. And, that provision doesn't prohibit blockades. Read it.
This is simply a misreading of Article 33 of the Fourth Geneva Convention. Nothing in it prohibits a blockade, nor was Israel's reason for the blockade to "weaken the Gaza economy." Political objectives are not prohibited by Article 33, and innocent civilians were not targeted. Nobody was "targeted" except those trying to run the blockade.rEvolutionist wrote:http://www.sfgate.com/cgi-bin/article.c ... z0puW6Bdk9Moreover, collective punishment is specifically barred under Article 33 of the Fourth Geneva Convention. Israeli officials have repeatedly stated that the objective of the blockade is to weaken the Gaza economy and undermine support for Hamas. That is a political, not a military, objective, and it is impermissible under international law to target innocent civilians to achieve nonmilitary goals.
Read more: http://www.sfgate.com/cgi-bin/article.c ... z1FAnc19lj
Note, first of all that Egypt participated in the blockade - i.e. Egypt had its own blockade of Gaza.rEvolutionist wrote:Did he say the blockade was "illegal?" Lots of UN chiefs have asked a lot of things of countries - doesn't mean that what the countries are doing is "illegal."UN chief Ban Ki-moon has asked Israel to end the blockade in Gaza, stop the construction of the wall in West Bank, and cease violating human rights of Palestinian children in detention.
http://www.dnaindia.com/world/report_un ... on_1312842rEvolutionist wrote:
In his latest report on human rights of the Palestinians, Ban stressed that the blockade of Gaza, which is in its third year amounts to "collective punishment", and is violation of right to food, water, health, work and adequate standard of living of the Palestinian people.
The reason for Israel's blockade was "self defense." After it left Gaza, naturally, the Palestinians allowed Hamas to seize control and they proceeded to fire hundreds of rockets into southern Israel. These rockets got into Gaza mainly by boats like the "Gaza aid flotilla" full of "innocent activists" (who have no qualms about brandishing pipes and swords and attacking soldiers...). In order for the crime of collective punishment to be constituted, the alleged perpetrator must have the intent to punish innocent people for actions they themselves have not committed, and in Gaza's case, the pain and misery caused to the civilian population is not the objective of the blockade. And, Israel is at war with Hamas which was operating from inside of Gaza.
The UN Human Rights Council bases its opinion on the claim that Israel still occupies Gaza. Israel, however, left Gaza 5 years ago, and has no soldiers there, and has no settlements there. The area is under the control of Hamas. Under the Geneva Conventions, an occupation regime needs the exertion of "effective control" in order for an occupation to be established. Israel simply hasn't had control of Gaza since 2005.
All of the flaws I've just pointed out above. [/quote]What's the flaw in the following?rEvolutionist wrote:
and there's been plenty of professional legal opinion to back that up.
Read more: http://www.nydailynews.com/opinions/201 ... z1FAMD5ineAlthough the wisdom of Israel's actions in stopping the Gaza flotilla is open to question, the legality of its actions is not. What Israel did was entirely consistent with both international and domestic law. In order to understand why, the complex events at sea must be deconstructed.
First, there is the Israeli blockade of Gaza. Recall that when Israel ended its occupation of Gaza, it did not impose a blockade. Indeed, it left behind agricultural facilities in the hope that the newly liberated Gaza Strip would become a peaceful and productive area.
Instead, Hamas seized control over Gaza and engaged in acts of warfare against Israel. These acts of warfare featured anti-personnel rockets, nearly 10,000 of them, directed at Israeli civilians. This was not only an act of warfare, it was a war crime. Israel responded to the rockets by declaring a blockade, the purpose of which was to assure that no rockets or other material that could be used for making war against Israeli civilians were permitted into Gaza.
Israel allowed humanitarian aid through its checkpoints. Egypt as well participated in the blockade. There was never a humanitarian crisis in Gaza, merely a shortage of certain goods that would end if the rocket attacks ended.
The legality of blockades as a response to acts of war is not subject to serious doubt. When the United States blockaded Cuba during the missile crisis, the State Department issued an opinion declaring the blockade to be lawful. This despite the fact that Cuba had not engaged in any act of belligerence against the United States. Other nations have similarly enforced naval blockades to assure their own security.
The second issue is whether it is lawful to enforce a legal blockade in international waters. Again, law and practice are clear. If there is no doubt that the offending ships have made a firm determination to break the blockade, then the blockade may be enforced before the offending ships cross the line into domestic waters. Again the United States and other Western countries have frequently boarded ships at high sea in order to assure their security.
Third, were those onboard the ship simply innocent noncombatants? The act of breaking a military siege is itself a military act. And let there be no mistake about the purpose of this flotilla; it was decidedly not to provide humanitarian aid to the residents of Gaza, but rather to break the entirely lawful Israeli military blockade. The proof lies in the fact that both Israel and Egypt offered to have all the food, medicine and other humanitarian goods sent to Gaza, if the boats agreed to land in an Israeli or Egyptian port. That humanitarian offer was soundly rejected by the leaders of the flotilla, who publicly announced: "This mission is not about delivering humanitarian supplies, it's about breaking Israel's siege on 1.5 million Palestinians."
It is a close question whether "civilians" who agree to participate in the breaking of a military blockade have become combatants. They are certainly something different from pure innocents, and perhaps they are also somewhat different from pure armed combatants.
Finally, we come to the issue of the right of self-defense engaged in by Israeli soldiers who were attacked by activists on the boat. There can be little doubt that the moment any person on the boat picked up a weapon and began to attack Israeli soldiers, they lost their status as innocent civilians.
Even if that were not the case, under ordinary civilian rules of self-defense, every Israeli soldier had the right to protect himself and his colleagues from attack by knife- and pipe-wielding assailants. Lest there be any doubt that Israeli soldiers were under attack, simply view the online video and watch the so-called peaceful activists pummel Israeli soldiers with metal rods.
Every individual has the right to repel such attacks by the use of lethal force. That was especially true in this case, when the soldiers were so outnumbered on the deck of the ship. Recall that Israel's rules of engagement required its soldiers to fire only paintballs unless their lives were in danger.
Would any country in the world deny its soldiers the right of self-defense under comparable circumstances?
Israel's critics fail to pinpoint precisely what Israel did that allegedly violates international law. Some have wrongly focused on the blockade itself. Others have erroneously pointed to the location of the boarding in international waters. Most have simply pointed to the deaths of so-called peace activists, though these deaths appear to be the result of lawful acts of self-defense.
There can be little doubt that the mission was a failure, as judged by its results. It is important, however, to distinguish between faulty policies and alleged violations of international law. Only the latter would warrant international intervention, and the case has simply not been made that Israel violated international law.
Which do not refute Dershowitz's argument. Like - your silly assertion that blockades are "only" legal in times of war. That's complete rubbish.
But, it was with Hamas, and it doesn't matter either way. It is allowed to defend itself from Hamas lobbing rockets into Southern Israel and the right of self defense under international law allows Israel to set up the blockade even if "war" is not presently underway. The Gaza flotilla (I'll not call it Gaza "aid" flotilla, because that presumes it was purely a humanitarian venture - we have no reason to presume that).rEvolutionist wrote:
Israel wasn't at war with Gaza
Israel does not occupy it. Israel does not claim to occupy it. Israel didn't have soldiers in it, not since 2005, and dismantled all the settlements. It has no effective control, which is why Hamas was firing rockets from there with impunity.rEvolutionist wrote:
and in fact can't be at war as Gaza isn't an independent state but in fact is under occupation by Israel.
False - it has the right of self defense, and may enact a blockade even when not in times of war. Example: American blockade of Cuba under the John F. Kennedy administration.rEvolutionist wrote:
Because Israel isn't at war with Gaza, it has no right enact a blockade of Gaza.
It's not the "murder" of Turkish citizens because the folks on board the boat attacked the soldiers with pipes and whatnot. The soldiers had the right to defend themselves. The blockade was legal, and the flotilla received ample notice that they would be boarded. They were not taken by surprise. Had they honored the blockade and had they been purely a humanitarian effort bringing food and medical supplies only, then they would have been allowed to proceed through.rEvolutionist wrote: Even if it did, the blockade is punitive and collective punishment and therefore contravenes the Geneva Convention on Human Rights. What Israel did was either an act of war against Turkey or murder of Turkish citizens.